Modern India- Chapter wise PYQs

Q1) Assertion: Shah Alam II spend the initial years as an emperor outside Delhi.       

Reason: There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the North-West Frontier.  

Select the answer for the options given below: (2003)

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is the not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Q2) How did the Mughal emperor Jahandar Shah's reign come to an early end? (2003)
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
(b) He died due to slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine

Q1) What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the third Battle of Panipat? (2010)
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion of his viceroy Taimur Shah from Lahore by the Marathas
(b) He frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
(c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (G
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his Kingdom
Q2) Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines? (2001)
(a) Hyder Ali
(b) Shah Alam II
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Tipu Sultan
Q3) Who among the following streamlined the last Maratha administration after Sambhaji? (2000)
(a) Raja Ram
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Ganga bai
(d) Nanaji Deshmukh

Q1) With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements: 

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.

2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.

3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2010)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Q2) With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat? (2009)
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Q3) Who among the following Europeans were the last to come to pre-independence India as traders? (2007)
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Q4) Which one of the following was the first Fort constructed by the British in India? (2007)
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort St George
(c) Fort St David
(d) Fort St Angelo
Q5) In the year 1613, where was the English East India Comp any given permission to set up a factory (trading post)? (2006)
(a) Bangalore
(b) Madras
(c) Masulipattanam
(d) Surat
Q6) Which of the following is the correct statement?       (2005)
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch Colony till India's Independence.
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi.
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch Colony before the Portuguese took over from them.
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British Colony.
Q7) With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is not correct?        (2003)
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499.
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipattnam.
(c) In Eastern India, the English company opened its first factory in Odisha in 1633.
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746.
Q8) In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest Factory at: (2003)
(a) Surat
(b) Pulicat
(c) Cochin
(d) Kasimbazar
Q9) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (1999)
(a) Jehangir : William Hawkins
(b) Akbar : Sir Thomas Roe
(c) Shahjahan : Travernier
(d) Aurangzeb : Manucci

Q1) The ruler of which one of the following states was removed from power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance? (2007)
(a) Awadh
(b) Jhansi
(c) Nagpur
(d) Satara
Q2) Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the battles fought in India in the 18th century?     (2005)
(a) Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Buxar, Battle of Ambur, Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur, Battle of Plassey, Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Plassey, Battle of Ambur, Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur, Battle of Buxar, Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Plassey
Q3) Consider the following statements: 

1.     In the third Battle of Panipat, Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi.

2.     Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo Mysore war.

3.      Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2004)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Q4) Consider the following Princely states of the British rule in India: 1.Jhansi 2.Sambalpur 3.Satara The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is: (2003)
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Q5) Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princess with a view to acquire territories? (1996)
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Dupleix
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings
Q6) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?                    (1995)
(a) Battle of Buxar : Mir Jafar vs Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash : French vs East India Company
(c) Battle of Chillianwala : Dalhousie vs Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda : Nizam vs East India Company

Q1) Consider the following statements: 

1.     In the third Battle of Panipat, Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi.

2.     Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo Mysore war.

3.      Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2004)

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Q2)      Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 

         List- I                       List-2

1.     1767-69         First Anglo-Maratha War

2.     1790-92         Third Anglo-Mysore War

3.     1824-26         First Anglo-Burmese war

4.     1845-46         Second Anglo-Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (2004)

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Q3) Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal Empire. 

Reason(R): Marathas were first to have a clear concept of united nation. (2003)

(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q4) Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines? (2001)
(a) Hyder Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Q5) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?        (1995)
(a) Battle of Buxar : Mir Jafar vs Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash : French vs East India Company
(c) Battle of Chillianwala : Dalhousie vs Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda : Nizam vs East India Company

Q1) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?  

         List- I                       List-2

1.     1767-69         First Anglo-Maratha War

2.     1790-92         Third Anglo-Mysore War

3.     1824-26         First Anglo-Burmese war

4.     1845-46         Second Anglo-Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (2004)

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Q1) 1)     Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 

         List- I                       List-2

1.     1767-69         First Anglo-Maratha War

2.     1790-92         Third Anglo-Mysore War

3.     1824-26         First Anglo-Burmese war

4.     1845-46         Second Anglo-Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (2004)

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Q1) With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1.      Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

2.      Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2024)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q2) Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

1.     Lord Cornwallis

2.     Alexander Read

3.     Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2017)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3) Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India? 

1.     Dadabhai Naoroji

2.     G Subramanyan Iyer

3.     R C Dutt

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2015)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4) Consider the following statements.         

1.     Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops

2.     Use of mobile cannons in warfare

3.     Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English? Select the correct answer from the following options. (2012)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Q5) With reference to Ryotwari settlement, consider the following statements. 

1.     The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the government.

2.     The government gave Pattas to the Ryots

3.     The land was surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the following options. (2012)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Q6) The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions? (2011)
(a) Making Zamindars position stronger vis-a-vis the Ryot
(b) Making East India company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a),(b) and (c) above
Q7) Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories? (2011)
(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin's theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
Q8) With reference to the period of Colonial rule in India, 'Home Charges' formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted 'Home Charges'?  

1.     Funds used to support the India office in London

2.     Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India

3.     Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2011)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q9) Under the Permanent Settlement of 1793, the Zamindars were required to issue pattas to the farmers which were not issued by many of the Zamindars. Which among them was the reason for this? (2001)
(a) The Zamindars were trusted by the farmers
(b) There was no official check upon the Zamindars
(c) It was the responsibility of the British government
(d) The farmers were not interested in getting pattas
Q10) Match List -I with List-II.                                                                                                    

 

List I

 

List II

A.

Land allotted to big feudal landlords

1.

Jagirdari System

B.

Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors

2.

Ryotwari System

C.

Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet,
mortgage, transfer, gift or sell

3.

Mahalwari System

D.

Revenue settlements made at village level

4.

Zamindari System

      Select the correct answer from the following options. (2000)

(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q11) The term 'Imperial Preference' was applied to which one of the following? (1999)
(a) special privileges on British imports in India
(b) racial discrimination by the Britishers
(c) subordination of Indian interests to that of the British
(d) preference given to British political agents over Indian Princes
Q12) Which among the following was the reasons for the lack of independent development of industries in India during British rule?       (1999)
(a) Absence of heavy industries
(b) Scarcity of foreign capital
(c) Scarcity of natural resources
(d) Preference of the rich to invest in land

Q1) Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:    

1.      It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2.     It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3.     The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2019)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2) What was /were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)? 

1.     To disclaim any intention to annex Indian states

2.     To place the Indian Administration under the British Crown

3.     To regulate East India Company's trade with India

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2014)

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3) Consider the following statements:     

1.     The Charter Act of 1853 abolished East India Company's monopoly of Indian trade

2.     Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company all together and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2006)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
Q4) Consider the following statements:      

1.     Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General who established the regular police force in India on the British pattern.

2.     Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act 1773.

3.     The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2005)

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5) Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter act of 1833? (2003)
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished.
(b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India-in-C
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General-in-Council.
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a law member in the Governor-General's Council
Q6) Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy's authority over his executive Council by substituting 'Portfolio' or departmental system for corporate functioning? (2002)
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian councils Act, 1909
Q7) Match List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer from the options that follow the list.                          

 

List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India)

 

List II (Provisions)

A.

Charter Act, 1813

1.

Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company

B.

Regulating Act, 1773

2.

Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended

 

C.

Act of 1858

3.

The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown

 

D.

Pitt’s India Act

4.

The Company’s Directors were asked present to the British Government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the Company

(2002)
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2

Q1) By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation? (2010)
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormo
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and fe
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwal

Q1) Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?    

1.      Charter Act of 1813

2.     General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3.     Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2018)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2)   With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:                                                                            

Institution                                           Founder

1.     Sanskrit College at Banaras     -           William Jones

2.     Calcutta Madrasa                     -           Warren Hastings

3.     Fort William College               -           Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (2018)

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q3) Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?  

1.     Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2.     Establishment of universities was recommended.

3.     English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2018)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4) Which of the following was the aim of education as stated by the Wood's despatch of 1854? (2002)
(a) The creation of employment opportunities for native Indians.
(b) The spread of western culture in India.
(c) The promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) The introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education.
Q5) Which is the correct chronological sequence of the following?     

1.     Wood's Education despatch

2.     Macaulay’s minute on education

3.     The Sargent Education Report

4.     Indian Education (Hunter Commission)

Choose the correct following options. (1997)

(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2

Q1) Economically one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the  (2018)
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population
Q2)  Consider the following pairs:   

1.      Radhakanta Deb —First President of the British Indian Association

2.     Gazulu Lakshmi Narasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajan Sabha

3.     Surendrenath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (2017)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3) The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the      (2013)
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the E
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

Q1) What was/ were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's proclamation (1858)? 


1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian states.

2. To place the Indian administration under the British crown.

3. To regulate East India Company's trade with India.


Select the correct answer from the following options. (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2) Who was the Governor General of India during the sepoy mutiny?  (2006)
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Lytton
Q3) Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857, belong to?   (2005)
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Q4) Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of 1857? (2005)
(a) Jhansi
(b) Chittor
(c) Jagdishpur
(d) Lucknow
Q5) "In this instance, we could not play of the Mohammedans against the Hindus". To which of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate?  (2000)
(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
(c) Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement (1919-22)
(d) August Movement of 1942
Q6) The educated middle class in India:  (1998)
(a) Opposed the Revolt of 1857
(b) Supported the Revolt of 1857
(c) Remained neutral to the Revolt of 1857
(d) Fought against native rulers

Q1) Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of:             (2020)
(a) Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
(b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
(c) National leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters
Q2) The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:                                    (2013)
(a) The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third.
(b) The grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land.
(c) The uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom.
(d) Writing off all peasant debts.

Q1) With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (2020)
(a) The Revolt of 1857
(b) The Mappila rebellion of 1921
(c) The Indigo revolt of 1859 – 60
(d) Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900
Q2) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?


1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.

2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:  (2018)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021)
Annie Besant
Debendranath Tagore
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Sarojini Naidu
Q2) Consider the following pairs:

 

Movement

Organisation Leader

1.

All India Anti-Untouchability League

Mahatma Gandhi

2.

All India Kisan Sabha

Swami Sahajanad Saraswati

3.

Self-Respect Movement

E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2019)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3) Which among the following events happened earliest?  (2018)
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination
Q4) Satya Shodhak Samaj organized:        (2016)
(a) A movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
(b) A temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) An anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) A peasant movement in Punjab
Q5) Consider the following:

1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee

2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation

3. Indian Reform Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above? (2016)

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6) Annie Besant was

1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement.

2. The founder of the Theosophical Society.

3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2013)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q1) Who out of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?

1.     Dadabhai Naoroji                                                                         

2.     G Subramaniam Iyer

3.     RC Dutt

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2015)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2) Consider the following statements:  

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1.     Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.

2.     Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians.

3.     Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the following options. (2012)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3) Who among the following rejected the title of knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India? (2008)
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M G Ranade
(c) G K Gokhale
(d) B G Tilak
Q4) Where was the first session of the INC held in December 1885? (2008)
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
Q5) Who among the following used the phrase 'Un-British' to criticise the English colonial control of India?          (2008)
(a) Anand Mohan Bose
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Pherozes hah Mehta
Q6) That the per capita income in India was rupees 20 in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by (2000)
(a) MG Ranade
(b) Sir W Hunter
(c) RC Dutta
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q7) Which one of the following Indian leaders was dismissed by the British from the Indian Civil Service? (1999)
(a) Satyendranath Tagore
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) RC Dutt
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Q1) Consider the following statements: 


Statement-I:  7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.


Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  (2023)

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for St
(b) Both Statement- I and Statement-11 are correct and Statement-11 is not the correct explanation f
(c) Statement- I is correct but Statement-11 is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Stateinent-11 is correct
Q2) With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1.      It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2.     The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2019)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?               (2018)
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Q4) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018)
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Q5) The 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the (2016)
(a) Agitation against the Partition of Bengal
(b) Home Rule Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Visit of the Simon Commission to India
Q6) What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907? (2016)
(a) Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto.
(b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Governm
(c) Foundation of Muslim League.
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress.
Q7) Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’? (2015)
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Q8) The partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until (2014)
(a) The First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
(b) King George V abrogates Curzon's Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911.
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan.
Q9) Annie Besant was                                                                      

1.     Responsible for starting the Home Rule movement

2.     The founder of the Theosophical Society

3.      The President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct answer from the following options. (2013)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q10) What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi Movement? (2010)
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab colonisa
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chaplekar brothers.
Q11) Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention or of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of split in Congress at the next congress session held in Surat in 1907.Which of the following was not one of those resolutions?      (2010)
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
Q12) In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16 October 1905 is well known for which of the following reasons? (2009)
(a) The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta Town Hall.
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona.
Q13) Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled 'New Lamps for Old?         (2008)
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) RCDutt
(c) Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Viraghavachariar
Q14) The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla' written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the liberation struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?           (2007)
(a) Rajni Kanta Sen
(b) Dwijendralal Ray
(c) Mukunda Das
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Q15) With reference to the period of extremist nationalist movement in India with its spirit of swadeshi, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2002)
(a) Liaqat Hossain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their agitations.
(b) In 1898, the scheme of national education was formulated by Satish Chandra Mukherjee.
(c) The Bengal National College was founded in 1906 with Aurobindo as the principal.
(d) Tagore preached the cult of Atmashakti, the main plan of which was social and economic regenerat
Q16) A London branch of the All India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of (2001)
(a) Aga Khan
(b) Ameer Ali
(c) Liaqat Ali Khan
(d) M A Jinnah
Q17) The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as       (1999)
(a) Realistic
(b) Socialistic
(c) Revivalistic
(d) impressionistic
Q18) Who organised the 'Abhinav Bharat' a secret society of revolutionaries? (1999)
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) V D Savarkar
(c) Prafulla Chaki
(d) Bhagat Singh
Q19) The Indian Muslims in general, were not attracted to the extremist movement because of the (1998)
(a) Influence of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(b) Anti-Muslim attitude of Extremist leaders
(c) Indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
(d) Extremists policy of harping on Hindu past
Q20) Which one of the following defines the extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?                                                                                        (1998)
(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them preference over imported commod
(b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways.
(c) Providing national education according to the requirements of the country.
(d) Organising coups against the British Empire through military revolt.

Q1) Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh

2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? (2022)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Q2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna ; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was       (2018)
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Q3) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a (2014)
(a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco
(b) Nationalist organization operating from Singapore
(c) Militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
(d) Communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent

Q1) Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of (2020)
(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
(b) its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
(c) national leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters
Q2) Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?  (2018)
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Q3) With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
  2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
  3. Demonstrations against the arrival of the Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2015)

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4) What was the aim of the Rowlatt Act?  (2012)
(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
(c) Suppression of the Khilafat movement
(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
Q5) What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organise a Satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?

  1. The administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
  2. The administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2011)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q1) In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into ‘Reserved’ and ‘Transferred’ subjects. Which of the following were treated as ‘Reserved’ subjects?    

1.     Administration of Justice

2.     Local Self-Government

3.     Land Revenue

4.     Police

      Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2022)

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Q2) Consider the following statements:      


1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21.

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to  (2017)
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Q4) The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to  (2016)
(a) Social reforms
(b) Educational reforms
(c) Reforms in police administration
(d) Constitutional reforms
Q5) The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined  (2015)
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above
Q6) Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.

3. Devolution of Legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (2012)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q1) The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for (2017)
(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Q1) With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:

1.     It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.

2.     It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.

3.     It advocated, separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2014)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Q1) Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928)?          (2003)
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vithalbhai J Patel
(d) Mahadev Desai
Q2) Assertion: The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak.

Reason: The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeoisie and reactionary.   (2002)

(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q1) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?   

  1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
  2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
  3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
  4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(2020)
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q2) Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930? (2015)
(a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) Annie Besant
Q3) The 1929 Session of the Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the   (2014)
(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
(d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
Q4) The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because (2013)
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Q5) The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

1.     The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete Independence

2.     The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session

3.     A resolution was passed rejecting the two Nation theory in that session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2012)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above

Q1)  With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 

1.      It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces, and Princely States.

2.      Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2024)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q2) In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the (2018)
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors

Q1) With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:


1.     The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.

2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.                                               

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q2) In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as   (2021)
(a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
(b) members of the Interim Government in 1946
(c) members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
(d) officers of the Indian National Army
Q3) With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion status once the Second World War was over.
Q4) The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War (2016)
(a) India should be granted complete independence
(b) India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
(c) India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
(d) India should be given Dominion status
Q5) Quit India Movement was launched in response to                            (2013)
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan
Q6) The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939 because of which of the following reasons?  (2012)
(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) Emergence of a 'left wing' in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
(c) There were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Q1) With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?  

  1. It recommended a Federal Government.
  2. It enlarged the power of the Indian courts
  3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.

Choose the correct answer from the following options.  (2015)

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Q2) Why was the Radcliffe Committee appointed?                       (2014)
(a) solve the problem of minorities in India
(b) give effect to the Independence Bill
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Q3) The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for              (2013)
(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts
Q4) Consider the following statements:  

  1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla conference took place.
  2. Indian Navy revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2005)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q5) Which one of the following was the president of Indian National Congress at the time of the partition of India?  (2002)
(a) C Rajagopalachari
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Q6) Who was the brainchild of the Balkan plan for fragmentation of India?                    (2000)
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) MA Jinnah
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) VP Menon
Q7) Why did the Indian National Congress mainly agree to the partition of the country in 1947? (1998)
(a) The principle of two Nation theory was then acceptable to them
(b) It was imposed by the British government and the Congress was helpless in this regard
(c) They wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots
(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom