Participating in the monthly quiz helps you consolidate your learning and identify areas that need improvement. Regular monthly practice enhances retention, sharpens recall, and boosts your confidence for the examination. By covering a wide range of topics at the end of each month, you ensure thorough revision and stay on track with the syllabus.
Q1) Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA):
1. It empowers specified officers of the armed forces to take certain actions in a disturbed area.
2. A disturbed area can be declared only by the State Government.
3. The Act provides powers relating to arrest without warrant and the use of force under specified conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q2) Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):
1. The CEC can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. Other Election Commissioners enjoy exactly the same constitutional protection against removal as the CEC.
3. Other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of the CEC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q3) With reference to the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
1. A distinguished jurist may be appointed as a Supreme Court judge if the constitutional conditions are satisfied.
2. The distinguished-jurist qualification is provided under Article 124(3) of the Constitution.
3. The Constitution requires every Supreme Court judge to have previously served as a High Court judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q4) Consider the following statements regarding the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968:
1. It deals with the reservation and allotment of election symbols.
2. It provides a framework for the recognition of political parties.
3. It was issued by the Election Commission of India under its constitutional authority.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q5) Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK):
1. It was originally constituted under the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993.
2. It continues to function as a statutory body under that Act.
3. Its tenure has been extended up to 31 March 2028.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q6) Consider the following statements regarding Article 142 of the Constitution:
1. It empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice in a matter before it.
2. It gives the Supreme Court unrestricted power to disregard every substantive law.
3. Orders passed under this Article are enforceable throughout the territory of India, subject to the constitutional provision.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q7) Consider the following statements regarding Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs):
1. Political parties may register with the Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. Every registered political party automatically receives the same privileges as a recognised national political party.
3. RUPPs may include newly registered parties and parties that do not meet the prescribed criteria for recognition as a State or national party.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q8) Consider the following statements regarding transfer pricing:
1. Transfer pricing concerns the prices charged in transactions between associated enterprises.
2. The arm's length principle requires such transactions to be priced as if they were between independent enterprises under comparable conditions.
3. Transfer pricing regulations are intended to prevent the shifting of profits through manipulated transaction prices.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q9) Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND):
1. It receives and analyses information relating to suspicious financial transactions.
2. It disseminates financial intelligence to appropriate intelligence, enforcement and regulatory agencies.
3. It functions as the principal criminal court for prosecuting money-laundering offences.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q10) Consider the following statements regarding the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT):
1. It provides a secure messaging network for financial institutions.
2. It directly holds customers' bank deposits and transfers money between their accounts.
3. It transmits standardised financial messages, including payment instructions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q11) If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts an outright sale of Government securities through Open Market Operations (OMO), which of the following is the most likely immediate effect?
Q12) Consider the following statements regarding the EPFO wage ceiling:
1. In September 2026, the wage ceiling for mandatory coverage under the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) was raised from ?15,000 to ?25,000 per month.
2. The revision is intended to extend social-security coverage to additional eligible employees.
3. Every employee earning above ?25,000 per month is prohibited from making any EPF contribution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q13) Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 framework for Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) on Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions:
1. MDR is a charge associated with processing a merchant's digital payment.
2. The announced framework provides for a 0.4% MDR on specified person-to-merchant transactions above ?2,000, subject to applicable conditions and caps.
3. MDR is necessarily charged directly to the customer in every UPI transaction.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q14) Consider the following statements regarding the middle-income trap and the World Bank's World Development Report 2024:
1. The middle-income trap refers to the difficulty some economies face in sustaining growth as they move towards high-income status.
2. The World Bank's proposed 3i strategy includes investment, infusion of technology and innovation.
3. According to this strategy, middle-income economies should permanently rely on investment alone and avoid adopting foreign technologies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q15) Consider the following statements regarding the Global Gender Gap Index 2026 published by the World Economic Forum (WEF):
1. It assesses gender parity across economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
2. India retained the 131st position in the 2026 edition.
3. A score of 100% represents complete gender parity under the index.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q16) Consider the following statements regarding the Community of Latin American and Caribbean States (CELAC):
1. It is a regional intergovernmental mechanism for political dialogue and cooperation.
2. It includes countries from both Latin America and the Caribbean.
3. The United States and Canada are full members of CELAC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q17) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime:
1. It aims to strengthen international cooperation in combating certain crimes committed through information and communications technology systems.
2. It provides for cooperation in sharing electronic evidence relating to serious crimes.
3. It automatically replaces the domestic criminal laws of all countries that sign it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q18) Consider the following statements regarding the Visegrád Group:
1. It consists of Poland, Hungary, the Czech Republic and Slovakia.
2. It was established in 1991 to promote regional cooperation.
3. All its members are also members of the European Union.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q19) Consider the following statements regarding the Outer Space Treaty, 1967:
1. It prohibits the placement of nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit around Earth.
2. It prohibits national appropriation of outer space and celestial bodies through claims of sovereignty.
3. It prohibits every form of military activity in outer space.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q20) Consider the following statements regarding the India–MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA):
1. MERCOSUR is a regional economic grouping in South America.
2. The India–MERCOSUR PTA provides preferential tariff treatment for specified products.
3. The agreement eliminates customs duties on all goods traded between India and MERCOSUR members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q21) Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
1. It promotes the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technology.
2. It verifies compliance with nuclear safeguards obligations through inspections and other verification measures.
3. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations in the same legal category as the World Health Organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q22) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Charter's Enemy State Clauses:
1. They refer to states that were enemies of signatories to the UN Charter during the Second World War.
2. They appear in Articles 53, 77 and 107 of the UN Charter.
3. The United Nations General Assembly has recognised these clauses as obsolete.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q23) Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 agreement involving the United States, Denmark and Greenland:
1. The agreement amends and supplements the existing defence arrangements concerning Greenland.
2. It provides for expanded US military access and potential additional defence areas in Greenland.
3. The agreement transfers sovereignty over Greenland from Denmark to the United States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q24) Consider the following statements regarding the Partners for Multilateralism (P4M) grouping:
1. It seeks to strengthen multilateral cooperation and respect for international law.
2. India was among the initial co-sponsors of the P4M summit declaration in September 2026.
3. It is a military alliance that requires members to provide collective defence against an armed attack.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q25) Consider the following statements regarding the conflict in Yemen:
1. The Houthi movement is also known as Ansar Allah.
2. Yemen's conflict has involved the internationally recognised government and the Houthi movement, along with regional actors.
3. Yemen's location near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait gives the conflict strategic significance for international shipping.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q26) Consider the following statements regarding the 1991 India–Pakistan agreement on nuclear installations:
1. The agreement prohibits attacks against nuclear installations and facilities covered by its provisions.
2. It requires India and Pakistan to exchange lists of covered nuclear installations on 1 January every year.
3. The agreement was signed in 1991 and entered into force in 1998.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q27) Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA):
1. It was established in 1899 during the First Hague Peace Conference.
2. It facilitates arbitration and other forms of dispute resolution between states and other parties where applicable.
3. It is a permanent court consisting of a fixed bench of judges who decide every case.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q28) Consider the following statements regarding BRICS:
1. BRICS is a forum for cooperation among major emerging economies and other members.
2. Its agenda includes reform of global governance institutions and cooperation among developing countries.
3. A BRICS declaration automatically becomes legally binding international law on all participating countries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q29) Consider the following statements regarding the Mandar musical instrument:
1. It is a traditional folk percussion instrument associated with Jharkhand.
2. It is a double-headed drum played to provide rhythmic accompaniment to folk music and dances.
3. It is a wind instrument made primarily of bamboo.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q30) Consider the following statements regarding the Modhera Sun Temple:
1. It is located in Gujarat and is dedicated to the Sun God, Surya.
2. It was built during the reign of the Solanki dynasty.
3. It is located on the banks of the Pushpavati River and includes a stepped water tank known as Surya Kund or Ramakunda.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q31) Consider the following statements regarding the Tulu language:
1. Tulu belongs to the Dravidian language family.
2. It is traditionally spoken in parts of coastal Karnataka and northern Kerala.
3. Tulu is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q32) Consider the following statements regarding Bidriware:
1. It is a traditional metal handicraft associated with Bidar in Karnataka.
2. Its characteristic appearance is created through the inlay of silver or other metals into a dark alloy surface.
3. It is primarily a pottery craft in which designs are painted on terracotta vessels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q33) Consider the following statements regarding the Ramanathaswamy Temple:
1. It is situated at Rameswaram in Tamil Nadu.
2. It is one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva.
3. Its long pillared corridors are a notable feature of its architecture.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q34) Consider the following statements regarding the Gollala Gudi Temple:
1. The name is associated with a temple site in Andhra Pradesh.
2. The term Gudi in Telugu commonly means a temple or place of worship.
3. The name itself establishes that the temple belongs to the Dravidian temple tradition of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q35) Consider the following statements regarding Saratchandra Chattopadhyay:
1. He was a prominent Bengali novelist and short-story writer.
2. Devdas, Srikanta and Pather Dabi are among his literary works.
3. His writings often explored social inequalities, women's lives and restrictive social customs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q36) Consider the following statements regarding Poompuhar:
1. It is an ancient port settlement associated with the Chola kingdom.
2. It is situated on the coast of the Bay of Bengal in present-day Tamil Nadu.
3. Archaeological evidence suggests that it was connected with maritime trade beyond the Indian subcontinent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q37) Consider the following statements regarding swell waves:
1. Swell waves can travel far beyond the region where they were originally generated by wind.
2. They generally have more regular crests and longer periods than locally generated wind waves.
3. Swell waves transport large quantities of seawater across ocean basins along with the wave energy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q38) Consider the following statements regarding levees along the Mississippi River:
1. Levees are raised embankments designed to reduce the risk of river flooding in surrounding areas.
2. Levees can confine river flow within a designated channel during high-water conditions.
3. Levees eliminate the possibility of flooding in all areas protected by them.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q39) Consider the following statements regarding Typhoon Dujuan:
1. A typhoon is a tropical cyclone occurring in the northwestern Pacific Ocean basin.
2. Tropical cyclones derive much of their energy from warm ocean waters and the release of latent heat during condensation.
3. Typhoons can cause storm surges, heavy rainfall and destructive winds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q40) Consider the following statements regarding the Boma–Badingilo Migratory Landscape:
1. It is located in South Sudan.
2. It includes Boma National Park and Badingilo National Park, along with surrounding ecosystems.
3. It supports one of the world's largest terrestrial mammal migrations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q41) Consider the following statements regarding the Equal Earth map projection:
1. It is an equal-area map projection.
2. It preserves the relative areas of geographical regions.
3. It preserves the shapes and angles of all geographical regions without distortion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q42) Consider the following statements regarding the planetary shrinkage of Mercury:
1. Mercury has contracted as its interior has cooled over geological time.
2. The contraction has contributed to the formation of lobate scarps and wrinkle ridges on its surface.
3. Mercury's contraction is primarily caused by the gradual increase in its distance from the Sun.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q43) With reference to the PRAMAAN Certificate, consider the following statements:
1. The exact issuing authority and purpose of a certificate should be verified from the relevant official notification.
2. The name of a certificate alone is sufficient to determine its statutory status and legal implications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q44) With reference to black carbon, consider the following statements:
1. Black carbon is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biomass and other carbon-containing fuels.
2. It is a short-lived climate pollutant.
3. Black carbon generally cools the atmosphere by reflecting incoming solar radiation.
4. Deposition of black carbon on snow and ice can accelerate melting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q45) With reference to the United Nations Environment Programme’s Limiting Overshoot report, consider the following statements:
1. The report examines pathways for returning global warming to below 1.5°C after a possible temperature overshoot.
2. A temperature overshoot means that global warming temporarily exceeds a specified temperature threshold.
3. The report suggests that adaptation is unnecessary if global temperatures eventually return below 1.5°C.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q46) With reference to Myristica swamps, consider the following statements:
1. They are freshwater swamp ecosystems found in parts of the Southern Western Ghats.
2. They are characterised by trees belonging to the genus Myristica.
3. Some trees in these swamps possess stilt roots and specialised breathing roots.
4. They are primarily saline wetlands located along India’s seacoast.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q47) With reference to India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) and the United Kingdom’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), consider the following statements:
1. India’s CCTS provides a framework for carbon-credit trading and emissions-related compliance.
2. The UK CBAM is intended to address carbon leakage by applying a carbon price to certain imported goods.
3. The UK recognises India’s CCTS as a qualifying carbon-pricing scheme for the purpose of its CBAM, subject to applicable rules.
4. The UK CBAM automatically exempts all Indian exports from carbon-related charges.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q48) With reference to China’s Tiangong Space Station, consider the following statements:
1. Tiangong is China’s permanently crewed modular space station.
2. It operates in low Earth orbit.
3. It is operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
4. China’s space station programme is separate from the International Space Station programme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q49) With reference to polylactic acid (PLA), consider the following statements:
1. PLA is a bio-based polymer that can be produced from lactic acid.
2. Its production can use fermented sugars derived from renewable feedstocks such as corn or sugarcane.
3. All PLA products biodegrade rapidly in any natural environment, including the ocean.
4. PLA is used in packaging and certain biomedical applications.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q50) With reference to PFOS, often called a “forever chemical”, consider the following statements:
1. PFOS belongs to the group of per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS).
2. Its persistence in the environment is associated with strong carbon–fluorine bonds.
3. PFOS is listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.
4. PFOS breaks down rapidly in the natural environment and does not accumulate in living organisms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q51) With reference to e-methanol, consider the following statements:
1. E-methanol can be produced using hydrogen generated with renewable electricity and captured carbon dioxide.
2. It can serve as a potential lower-carbon fuel for certain shipping and industrial applications.
3. E-methanol is necessarily carbon-free at every stage of its life cycle.
4. The climate benefits of e-methanol depend partly on the source of hydrogen and carbon dioxide and the energy used in production.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q52) With reference to peptides, consider the following statements:
1. Peptides consist of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
2. Proteins are generally longer chains of amino acids that may fold into complex three-dimensional structures.
3. Every peptide functions as a hormone.
4. Peptides have applications in medicine, diagnostics and biological research.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q53) With reference to India’s first LNG-powered train, consider the following statements:
1. The train introduced in September 2026 uses an LNG–diesel dual-fuel system.
2. It was developed by Integral Coach Factory in Chennai.
3. Its inaugural run operated between Sabarmati and Mahesana Junction in Gujarat.
4. The train operates exclusively on LNG and cannot use diesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q54) With reference to India’s Earth observation satellite EOS-05, consider the following statements:
1. EOS-05 is an Earth observation spacecraft developed under ISRO’s programme.
2. It was placed into a sub-geosynchronous transfer orbit by the GSLV-F17 mission.
3. It is India’s first imaging satellite from geosynchronous orbit.
4. Its principal purpose is to carry astronauts to the International Space Station.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q55) With reference to Virtual Private Networks (VPNs), consider the following statements:
1. A VPN can create an encrypted connection between a device and a VPN server.
2. A VPN can help protect data against interception on an untrusted network.
3. Using a VPN guarantees complete anonymity and prevents all forms of cyberattack.
4. A VPN can make a user’s internet traffic appear to originate from the VPN server’s IP address.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q56) With reference to the T-90 Main Battle Tank, consider the following statements:
1. The T-90 is a Russian-origin main battle tank used by the Indian Army.
2. The Indian Army’s T-90S variant is known as Bhishma.
3. The T-90 is a nuclear-powered armoured vehicle.
4. T-90 tanks are manufactured under licence in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q57) With reference to the “RAKSHA Document”, consider the following statements:
1. The precise identity of a defence document should be established from its official title and issuing authority.
2. The term “RAKSHA” by itself proves that a document is a legally binding international defence treaty.
3. A document related to defence may be a policy paper, protocol, memorandum or agreement, each having different legal implications.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q58) With reference to Exercise KAZIND, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint military exercise between India and Kazakhstan.
2. It aims to improve interoperability and cooperation between the participating armed forces.
3. It is a trilateral naval exercise involving India, Kazakhstan and Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q59) With reference to Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multinational air exercise hosted by the Indian Air Force.
2. It involves interaction and joint training with foreign air forces.
3. The exercise is exclusively a joint naval exercise conducted by the Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q60) With reference to Exercise Varuna, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France.
2. It supports maritime cooperation and interoperability between the two navies.
3. It is a joint military exercise between India and Japan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q61) With reference to Exercise Nomadic Elephant, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint military exercise between India and Mongolia.
2. It aims to strengthen cooperation and interoperability between their armed forces.
3. It is a bilateral exercise between India and Kazakhstan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q62) With reference to Exercise SLINEX-26, consider the following statements:
1. SLINEX is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
2. It seeks to enhance maritime cooperation and interoperability.
3. It is a joint air exercise between India and Japan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q63) With reference to Exercise Yudh Abhyas, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint military exercise between India and the United States.
2. It helps the participating armies practise joint operations and improve interoperability.
3. It is exclusively a submarine warfare exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q64) With reference to Exercise Veer Guardian 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self-Defense Force.
2. The 2026 edition was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur.
3. The Japanese contingent included F-2A fighter aircraft.
4. It is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Army.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q65) With reference to the Global Cities Index 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Oxford Economics publishes a Global Cities Index that compares cities across multiple economic and social dimensions.
2. A city’s ranking can reflect factors beyond its total population, including economic output and human capital.
3. The index is published by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q66) With reference to paraquat dichloride, consider the following statements:
1. It is a non-selective herbicide used to control a broad range of weeds.
2. It is highly toxic to humans if swallowed.
3. It is a fertiliser that directly supplies nitrogen to crops.
4. Exposure can cause serious damage to organs, including the lungs and kidneys.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q67) With reference to the PRAGATI-50 initiative, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to develop 50 model cities for improved sanitation and cleanliness.
2. It is associated with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
3. It is a programme to build 50 new smart cities from scratch.
4. Its approach includes target-based monitoring and technology-enabled oversight.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q68) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. It seeks to improve the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Caste communities.
3. Its components include development of SC-dominated villages, grants-in-aid for projects and hostels.
4. It is exclusively a scholarship scheme for students belonging to Other Backward Classes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q69) With reference to nicotine pouches, consider the following statements:
1. They are oral products that typically contain nicotine and are placed between the lip and gum.
2. They generally do not contain tobacco leaf, although they may contain nicotine derived from tobacco or manufactured synthetically.
3. They are risk-free because they do not involve burning tobacco.
4. Nicotine can cause dependence and has harmful effects, particularly on young people.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q70) With reference to the Eiffel Tower, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Paris, France.
2. It was constructed for the 1889 Exposition Universelle, held to mark the centenary of the French Revolution.
3. It was designed by Gustave Eiffel’s engineering company.
4. It was originally built as a permanent structure intended to serve as a royal palace.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q71) With reference to Vasundhara Lake, consider the following statements:
1. The name “Vasundhara Lake” should be matched with its exact geographical location using the relevant news report or official source.
2. A lake’s name alone is sufficient to determine the state, river basin and ecological characteristics to which it belongs.
3. For location-based questions, nearby settlements, drainage connections and physical features can help establish the correct geographical identity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q72) With reference to Luxembourg, consider the following statements:
1. Luxembourg is a landlocked country in Western Europe.
2. It is a founding member of the European Economic Community, the predecessor of the European Union.
3. It is a member of NATO and the Schengen Area.
4. Its capital city is Brussels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q73) With reference to Krasheninnikov Volcano, consider the following statements:
1. It is located on the Kamchatka Peninsula in Russia.
2. It lies within the Pacific Ring of Fire.
3. Its recent eruption was documented by NASA using observations from the US–India NISAR satellite.
4. It is a dormant volcano located in the Deccan Plateau of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q74) With reference to the Rangeet River, consider the following statements:
1. It is an important tributary of the Teesta River.
2. It flows through the Himalayan region of Sikkim.
3. The Teesta and Rangeet meet near the area commonly known as Triveni.
4. The Rangeet is a tributary of the Godavari River.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q75) With reference to Pichavaram Mangrove Forest, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Tamil Nadu.
2. It lies between the Vellar and Coleroon river systems.
3. Mangrove ecosystems provide nursery habitats for fish and other aquatic organisms.
4. Mangroves are restricted to freshwater environments and cannot tolerate saline conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q76) With reference to the Subarnarekha River, consider the following statements:
1. It originates near Ranchi in Jharkhand.
2. It flows through Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.
3. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.
4. It is a major tributary of the Ganga.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q77) With reference to the Caspian Sea, consider the following statements:
1. It is the world’s largest inland body of water by surface area.
2. It is bordered by Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and Azerbaijan.
3. It is connected naturally to the open ocean through a continuous sea passage.
4. It contains both marine-like and freshwater-related ecological characteristics, with salinity varying across the basin.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q78) With reference to Sohar Port, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Oman on the Gulf of Oman.
2. It is associated with an industrial and free-zone complex.
3. It lies on the Persian Gulf coast and is separated from the Gulf of Oman by the Strait of Hormuz.
4. Its location gives it relevance to maritime trade in the wider Gulf and Indian Ocean region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q79) With reference to Tso Kar Lake, consider the following statements:
1. It is a high-altitude lake in Ladakh’s Changthang region.
2. The Tso Kar basin is known for salt deposits and wetlands supporting wildlife.
3. It is an important habitat for the black-necked crane.
4. A 2026 restoration project proposed channelising water from the Rupsho Kharnak stream to help replenish the lake.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q80) With reference to Willingdon Island, consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Kochi, Kerala.
2. It is an artificial island developed around the harbour infrastructure of Kochi.
3. It is associated with port, shipping and naval activities.
4. It is situated in the Gulf of Kachchh in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q81) With reference to the Indian Peafowl, consider the following statements:
1. It is the national bird of India.
2. The male is generally more brightly coloured and possesses an elaborate train of elongated upper-tail coverts.
3. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended.
4. It is naturally restricted to the Himalayan region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q82) With reference to the Tokay Gecko, consider the following statements:
1. It is a species of gecko found across parts of South and Southeast Asia.
2. It is known for its loud vocalisation, often rendered as “to-kay”.
3. It is a mammal that feeds primarily on plant matter.
4. Illegal wildlife trade can threaten its populations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q83) With reference to the Eurasian Whimbrel, consider the following statements:
1. It is a migratory shorebird belonging to the sandpiper family.
2. Its long, down-curved bill is a characteristic identification feature.
3. It breeds mainly in Arctic and sub-Arctic regions and migrates to warmer areas during the non-breeding season.
4. It is a flightless bird endemic to the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q84) With reference to the Caspian Cobra, consider the following statements:
1. It is a venomous snake associated with parts of Central Asia and neighbouring regions.
2. It belongs to the genus Naja.
3. It is a marine snake restricted to the Caspian Sea.
4. Like other cobras, it can display a hood when threatened.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q85) With reference to the Giant African Snail (GAS), consider the following statements:
1. It is an invasive alien species in several regions outside its native range.
2. It can damage agricultural crops and garden plants.
3. It may act as an intermediate host for the rat lungworm parasite under suitable conditions.
4. Its spread is beneficial because it consistently improves native biodiversity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q86) With reference to Badri cattle, consider the following statements:
1. Badri is an indigenous cattle breed associated with Uttarakhand.
2. It is adapted to the hilly conditions of the Himalayan region.
3. It is a buffalo breed developed in the coastal districts of Kerala.
4. Conservation of indigenous breeds can help preserve locally adapted livestock genetic resources.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q87) With reference to the Himalayan Monal, consider the following statements:
1. It is a pheasant species associated with the Himalayas.
2. The male is known for its striking iridescent plumage.
3. It is the state bird of Uttarakhand.
4. It is naturally restricted to tropical mangrove forests.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q88) With reference to Przewalski’s Horse, consider the following statements:
1. It is a wild horse native to the steppes of Central Asia.
2. It is genetically distinct from domestic horses and is not simply a feral population of domestic horses.
3. It became extinct in the wild before reintroduction programmes were undertaken.
4. It is native to the African savanna.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q89) With reference to the Striped Hyena, consider the following statements:
1. It is a carnivorous mammal found in parts of Africa and Asia, including India.
2. It often scavenges on carcasses and can help remove animal remains from the environment.
3. It is strictly herbivorous.
4. Habitat loss, persecution and declining prey availability can threaten its populations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q90) With reference to orangutans, consider the following statements:
1. Orangutans are great apes native to Southeast Asia.
2. Wild orangutan populations occur naturally on the islands of Borneo and Sumatra.
3. Habitat loss from forest conversion is a major threat to their survival.
4. Orangutans are native to the African continent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q91) With reference to a totaliser in elections, consider the following statements:
1. It can aggregate votes recorded by multiple electronic voting machines (EVMs).
2. It is designed to prevent disclosure of candidate-wise results from individual polling stations.
3. It is currently used in all Indian elections as a mandatory component of vote counting.
4. Its use has been discussed in the context of voter privacy and possible intimidation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q92) With reference to superalignment in artificial intelligence, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to efforts to ensure that highly capable AI systems remain aligned with human intentions and values.
2. It concerns challenges that may arise if future AI systems become more capable than humans at certain tasks.
3. It is the same as improving an AI model’s ability to solve mathematical problems, regardless of its behaviour.
4. It can involve research into oversight, evaluation and methods for detecting unwanted behaviour.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q93) With reference to reverse vaccinology, consider the following statements:
1. It uses genomic or other sequence information from a pathogen to identify potential vaccine antigens.
2. It can help identify candidate antigens before they are isolated and tested using traditional methods.
3. It eliminates the need for laboratory experiments and clinical trials.
4. It can support the development of vaccines against pathogens that are difficult to culture.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q94) With reference to agentic artificial intelligence, consider the following statements:
1. AI agents can plan and carry out multi-step tasks towards a specified goal.
2. An agentic AI system may use tools, memory and feedback to complete a task.
3. Every generative AI system is necessarily agentic.
4. Greater autonomy can create risks involving erroneous actions, excessive permissions and inadequate human oversight.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q95) With reference to Thismia daemona, also called the “Devil Flower”, consider the following statements:
1. Thismia belongs to a group of plants that obtain much of their nutrition through associations with fungi.
2. Such plants generally have greatly reduced chlorophyll and do not depend primarily on photosynthesis.
3. Every species of Thismia is a parasitic animal rather than a plant.
4. These plants can be difficult to detect because they may spend much of their life cycle underground and produce small, unusual flowers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q96) With reference to a Table Top Exercise (TTX), consider the following statements:
1. It is a discussion-based exercise in which participants work through a simulated emergency or crisis scenario.
2. It is intended to test decision-making, coordination and response procedures.
3. It always requires the physical deployment of emergency personnel and equipment in the field.
4. It can be used to prepare for disasters, cyberattacks, pandemics and security incidents.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q97) With reference to Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs), consider the following statements:
1. Stock exchanges, clearing corporations and depositories are core examples of MIIs in India’s securities market.
2. MIIs support trading, clearing, settlement and the electronic holding of securities.
3. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the core MIIs in the securities market.
4. MIIs are commercial banks regulated exclusively by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q98) With reference to anti-dumping duty (ADD), consider the following statements:
1. It may be imposed when imported goods are sold at less than their normal value and cause injury to the domestic industry.
2. It is intended to address injurious dumping rather than prohibit all imports of the product.
3. Under World Trade Organization rules, anti-dumping duties may be imposed without an investigation into dumping and injury.
4. In India, the Directorate General of Trade Remedies investigates anti-dumping cases, while the competent government authority takes the decision on imposing the duty.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q99) With reference to soil carbon payments, consider the following statements:
1. They can provide financial incentives to farmers or land managers for adopting practices that increase soil organic carbon or reduce its loss.
2. Practices such as cover cropping, reduced tillage and agroforestry may contribute to soil carbon sequestration, depending on local conditions.
3. Carbon payments always guarantee permanent carbon storage and can be calculated without monitoring.
4. Measuring, reporting and verifying carbon changes are important for ensuring the credibility of carbon-payment schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q100) With reference to steel slag roads, consider the following statements:
1. Steel slag is a by-product of steelmaking that can be processed for use as a road-construction aggregate.
2. India’s CSIR–Central Road Research Institute has developed technology to use processed steel slag in road construction.
3. Using steel slag in roads can reduce demand for natural aggregates and help utilise industrial waste.
4. Untreated steel slag can always be used directly without testing for expansion, leaching or other material properties.
Which of the statements given above are correct?